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NEETPG August 2025 Recall | OBGY by Dr. Deepti Bahl

DAMS : NEET PG, MBBS, FMGE, USMLE Prep · 5,882 words · 27 min read

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0:12Hi everyone. Uh good evening, good

0:14evening to all the dear dear students

0:18and although I have already done a

0:20recall in the mega recall session and I

0:24have also shared uh the answers in the

0:27form of very short shorts and reels. Um

0:31here I would be doing a quick recall of

0:34obs need PG 2025

0:38and um so don't worry it's not going to

0:41take up a lot of your time but yes

0:42you've been asking for it and we are

0:45here. Okay so uh let's look at the first

0:49question. So this was one of the image

0:52based questions um which we also covered

0:54in the marathon right and uh what is the

0:59image showing you right so this is an

1:01image of controlled cord traction uh it

1:06was not an image of MRP I am 100% sure

1:09so this was the image uh you know uh and

1:12this is controlled cord traction

1:14something that we do in AMTSL

1:18right the other name for this is What?

1:21Yes. It is modified brand Andrews

1:25method.

1:26Yes. So modified brand Andrew's method

1:30of controlled cord traction. Right.

1:32Where one hand is pulling the cord down,

1:35the other hand is giving a

1:38counterattraction to the uterus in the

1:40upward direction to prevent uterine

1:43inversion. Okay. Yes. Perfect. Let's

1:46look at the second question. Okay, so

1:50this was again an image based question

1:52and we covered it in marathon session as

1:56well, right? So the neatp marathon that

1:58we did. So what is this and these are

2:00all covered in your DVT, LR and

2:02obviously in your notes. Okay, so this

2:05is uh a method to deliver what? Yes,

2:09extended arms. So can you tell me what

2:11maneuver is this? Especially

2:14where you're holding the baby and you're

2:16rotating the baby first to one side and

2:18then to the other side. Yes, this is the

2:22loves maneuver which is what we do to

2:25deliver a breach baby with extended

2:28arms. The image was not of penards.

2:31Okay, penards is incorrect which is to

2:33deliver extended legs. Okay, the image

2:37was of lossets maneuver. Burns Marshall

2:41is for the delivery of after coming

2:43head. Okay. And so is MSV. This is also

2:47for the delivery of after coming head.

2:51Right. Okay. Let's look at the third

2:55image. Uh the third image was also uh

2:59covered by Dr. Sumeir, but I have tried

3:01to get the closest possible image to uh

3:05the one that you got in your exam. So

3:07this was an MRI image. Uh it was a 40 or

3:12maybe something like 32 year old female

3:14with abdominal pain, right? Uh as one of

3:18the complaints and uh this is the

3:21closest MRI image that I could get after

3:25talking to lots lots and lots of

3:28students. Right? So uh yes the answer is

3:32adenomiiosis. So remember we have said

3:35that although the investigation of

3:37choice for adenomiosis is ultrasound

3:40transvaginal ultrasound but the gold

3:43standard no it was not an image of

3:47fibroid okay so the gold standard uh is

3:52MRI you know typically when your

3:54diagnosis is doubtful then yes we do

3:57need an MRI and especially when there is

4:00a focal adomiiosis

4:03Yes, adenomiiosis

4:05is usually going to affect the entire

4:08myometrium. But sometimes there is an

4:11entity which is called as focal

4:12adenomiosis which I have also taught in

4:14the class that especially in focal

4:16adenomiosis you need an MRI to

4:18differentiate it from uh you know

4:21fibroid uterus right. So this is very

4:25typically an image of adenomiosis. I

4:28know that in your image along with this

4:31in the endometrium they had written ET

4:33also right but this as I said you will

4:36agree is the closest image to what you

4:38got in the exam right uh fibroid MRI

4:45sometimes yes we do an MRI guided hu if

4:49you have attended my classes then this

4:51is what we teach you MRI guided hu high

4:54inensity focused ultrasound which is

4:56done under MRI guidance

4:58Then sometimes when there are multiple

5:00fibroids pre-operatively you want to do

5:02a MRI but other than that you know MRI

5:05is not routinely required for fibroid

5:08uterus but yes it will be required a lot

5:11of times in adenomiiosis when the uh

5:14diagnosis is doubtful. So do you all

5:17agree that this is quite close to the

5:19image that you got in your real exam?

5:22Yes. Okay. So then let's look at the

5:26next question. There was a lady who is

5:2865 years old. She has come with

5:31postmenopausal

5:33bleeding right and they had uh shown you

5:36or with history of bleeding and they had

5:38shown you a hyerectomy specimen.

5:42Now uh very classically from the recall

5:44what I got was that there was a

5:46hyerectomy specimen where the

5:48endometrium looked uh you know uh

5:51fragile or necrotic or dirty looking

5:54indometrium uh and the adexi is also

5:57shown. So if you agree this is again uh

6:01very very close to the real image you

6:03got also ha class

6:07whenever you talk about postmenopausal

6:10bleeding what have I told you that you

6:12should always rule out endometrial

6:16cancer right so endoca rule out and yes

6:21this is actually a specimen for

6:24endometrial cancer right Okay, let's go

6:29on to the next one. The next question

6:32said, there is a 35 year old lady with

6:34very high FSH as well as LH values and

6:38very low AMH values. Right? So, AMH was

6:43around 0.05,

6:45right? FSH was I think as high as 50

6:48international units. Okay? And uh when

6:52we talk about high LH and FSH right and

6:58very low AMH values you all know we are

7:01talking about POI primary ovarian

7:04insufficiency. I have told you that this

7:07is the new name for premature menopause

7:10or premature ovarian failure. Right? So

7:14now we actually call it as POI primary

7:17ovarian insufficiency. Okay. So please

7:21remember the reason is because uh there

7:24is no negative feedback the gonadotropen

7:26levels begin to increase which is what

7:29you also see in menopause. Okay.

7:32So premature ovarian failure or

7:35premature

7:39menopause. Okay.

7:44Right. So this is the answer to this

7:47question. They all mean the same thing.

7:49Yes, a 35 year old lady. Okay, they are

7:52saying there was also history of

7:54secondary aminora. Fair enough. So there

7:57is a history of secondary aminoria. You

7:59all know the answer is not PCOS because

8:02in PCOS LH can be high FSH normal.

8:06Calman's may LH FSH low hypothyroidism

8:11typically will know not have a strong

8:14association but yes sometimes it can be

8:16associated with low levels of again LH

8:19and FSH okay let's look at the next

8:23question so number of arteries and veins

8:26in the umbl cord okay so again uh in

8:30your LR I did specify that some basics

8:33of placenta are always asked that's what

8:35we covered in live lapid revision as

8:37well. Right? So it could be this, it

8:39could be weight of the placenta, it

8:41could be ratios, it could be anything.

8:43So yes, it is two arteries and one vein.

8:47I hope you have not done a silly mistake

8:49on this one. And which vein is this? It

8:51is the left umbl vein. Do you remember

8:55how we remember it? The left one is left

8:57behind. Right? So it is going to be the

9:00left umbl vein and there are going to be

9:03two umblcal arteries right. Okay let's

9:07look at the next one. So there was a

9:10question where a lady has come to the

9:12doctor and she is showing lenia niagra

9:16engorged breast with mongomeary

9:18tubercles and on examination it was very

9:22clearly seen that the uterus is enlarged

9:25and the doctor finds bluish

9:28discoloration of vagina. I agree that

9:32linear niigra and engorged breasts or

9:34mongomeary tubercles can be presumptive

9:37signs but once she has come to the

9:39doctor we have done the examination it

9:42is no longer a presumptive diagnosis it

9:44is now a probable diagnosis because now

9:48the doctor has seen the changes both

9:51uterine enlargement and bluish

9:54discoloration of vagina which is the

9:57shadow sign okay they are considered ed

10:01as probable signs. So enlargement of the

10:04uterus, shadwig sign, they are both

10:06probable signs. So as in when a doctor

10:10has examined a pregnancy is now not a

10:13presumptive thing here. Now it is

10:15becoming a probable thing. As far as

10:18positive signs are concerned, I hope you

10:20remember you can see fetal parts on

10:25ultrasound, right? Or you could see

10:27fetal cardiac activity on ultrasound. Or

10:30in later pregnancy you can feel the

10:33fetal parts on a PA examination. Or you

10:36can even oscultate the fetal heart rate.

10:40But these two will happen later. Right?

10:43Again if you remember in my marathon

10:45session the first slide itself I had

10:49shown you the probable signs and I said

10:52that it will be asked in the exam. So if

10:53you go back to neatp marathon this is

10:55the first slide that I started with

10:57right the shadvix especially the shadvix

11:00and the hagars both of which can be seen

11:03as early as 6 weeks. Yes the shadwick

11:06sign can also be called as the jquir

11:09sign. Okay, very nice. A birthday. Then

11:13there was a question that uh your

11:15patient is a post LSCS patient. She has

11:18a BMI of more than 35. What will you

11:21give for thromboprofile laxis? Now uh

11:25yes. So the as per the guidelines both

11:27American guidelines uh Royal College

11:30guidelines and Foxy guidelines if you

11:33are doing an emergency cesarian section

11:36and the BMI of the patient is more than

11:3935 then we should give her

11:42thromboprofilaxis

11:43for at least 10 days. If she has more

11:48risk factors then we can give it for a

11:50prolonged period of time which is 6

11:52weeks as well. And again there is a

11:54direct snapshot in the perpium topic

11:57when I'm teaching you about thrombosis

12:00of the pelvic veins or thromboplabitis.

12:02I've taught you that whenever it is

12:04pregnancy or pure perpurium and we have

12:08to give thromboprofile access or treat

12:11DVT deep vein thrombosis it will always

12:14be low molecular weight heperin warerin

12:19that is approved only for one condition

12:21in pregnancy otherwise warerin is a

12:24category X drug the only thing that it

12:27is approved for is yes prosthetic heart

12:31valves

12:32Okay. And please remember warerin there

12:36is a delay in the onset of action. Do

12:39you know that pharmacology? Yes. So

12:41there is a delay in the onset of action

12:42of warerin. So when you have to begin

12:45anti-coagulation perpurium is a very

12:47strongly thrombogenic state. So the

12:50preferred drug is low molecular weight

12:53heperin. Right? As I said the criteria

12:57is emergency cesarian and a BMI more

12:59than 35. then thromboprofile access will

13:02be done for at least 10 days. If she has

13:05additional risk factors like previous

13:07history of thrombosis or anything like

13:10that then we might have to do it for a

13:12prolonged span which is like 6 weeks.

13:15Okay, let's go on to the next question.

13:18A patient after vaginal delivery is

13:21having postpartum hemorrhage. She

13:24continues to bleed even after the

13:26medical management. What will you do

13:28next in the labor room? Now you got a

13:31very similar question in the FMG exam.

13:33But how is it different? In the FMG

13:36exam, they had asked about failed

13:38medical management and you are doing a

13:40cesarian section which means you are

13:43already in OT. The uterus is open. Here

13:47they have asked you failed medical

13:49management but the patient is still in

13:51the labor room. So what are you going to

13:54do? Yes, the answer has to be a balloon

13:58tamponard. So if you go back to the

14:00algorithms that I have taught, I've told

14:01you you give oxytocin and if the patient

14:06continues to bleed after oxytocin, what

14:08have I taught you? I have taught you

14:11then in the next step you will add more

14:14utroix

14:15and along with utroonics you have to now

14:18add balloon tamponard. Right? So the

14:23bakri balloon tamponard. Okay. No

14:26compression sutures. Okay. Belinch is a

14:29type of compression sutures. But

14:31compression sutures are not applied in

14:33labor room beta. The compression suture

14:36is a surgical management which you will

14:39do after balloon tamponard provided the

14:42vitals are stable. So after balloon

14:45tamponard if vitals are stable we do

14:48belch. If vitals are unstable, we will

14:52go on to stepwise devascularization.

14:55Okay. Yes. B Lynch beta G compression

14:58suture N. Maybe they had given

15:00compression suture in the language but

15:03they mean the same. The answer is still

15:05balloon tamponard. Okay.

15:08Let's look at the next one. So your

15:11patient is 9 weeks pregnant. She has

15:14history of toxopplasma 5 years back.

15:17Okay. Right. So toxopplasma kabua 5

15:20years back and now there is a positive

15:24IGG in the maternal serum and she's

15:26currently 9 weeks pregnant. Again

15:29whenever I teach infections I've taught

15:31you that you do not have to worry about

15:34IGG. IGG means a past infection not a

15:38currently active infection.

15:42So what is the uh suggestion or advice

15:45that you will give to the patient? You

15:47advise to continue the pregnancy as

15:50there is no risk. Right? Please this is

15:53not an indication for MTP. There is no

15:57need to start treatment for

15:58toxopplasmosis.

16:00It is a past infection.

16:03We will not directly do a invasive

16:05procedure like amniotic fluid

16:07assessment. Especially when it is a past

16:10infection. Had it been a new infection

16:13for the patient. We can think of doing

16:15amniotic fluid assessment. Why is it

16:17done? To see whether the baby is also

16:20infected or not. But amniotic fluid

16:23assessment may be we do not do what? We

16:26do not do it at 9 weeks. It is something

16:28which is planned beyond 15 weeks. It

16:32doesn't matter what else they write.

16:34Right? The thing is they have very

16:36clearly given you IGG positive which

16:40means it is a past infection. Okay.

16:42They've also written five years back. So

16:45the problem is I've always taught you

16:47that you have to pick up the key words

16:49and you have to integrate them. Right?

16:52Also I've taught you to go with your

16:54first instincts. If you think too much

16:56you'll land up with overthinking and

16:58doing easy questions wrong. Okay? So it

17:02is not important. IGG means it is a past

17:05infection. Okay.

17:08Okay. A lady has come at 36 weeks with

17:12reduced fetal movements. An NST is done

17:16and it shows one acceleration in 20

17:18minutes. Exactly like this. I teach the

17:21case scenario when I do the classes with

17:23you, right? That a lady has come with

17:25reduced movements. You do NST. If the

17:28NST is showing one acceleration or zero

17:31acceleration in 20 minutes, what do you

17:33do? You have to extend it for another 20

17:37minutes. You cannot call it non-reactive

17:40before 40 minutes. So answer is continue

17:44the NST for up to 40 minutes. Yes, once

17:48you have reached 40 minutes, if there

17:51are less than two accelerations,

17:54it may be one, it may be zero. So if

17:57there are less than two accelerations in

17:5940 minutes then yes we call it as

18:03nonreactive

18:05or we call it as a positive NST and we

18:09will go ahead and do a biofysical

18:11profile for the patient but not in this

18:14patient. Okay. In this patient it is

18:16continue the NST for 40 minutes. Okay.

18:21Okay. Uh this is an image which was

18:25given to you. diagnosis was asked again

18:27directly from my class. Whenever I teach

18:29you amniotic fluid, I teach amniotic

18:32band syndrome. Okay. In the history they

18:35had given there is absent index finger

18:37and I know that there was a collage of

18:40images but one of the images was

18:43definitely this one. Do you all agree?

18:45So one of the images was definitely the

18:48one that I have shown here which is

18:50showing you constriction rings. Okay,

18:54these are constriction rings and absent

18:58index finger where we tell you that the

19:01distal fallances or fallenes may get

19:04amputated. Right? So the answer is

19:07amniotic band syndrome which is seen

19:10with severe oligo hydraos.

19:14Okay. Club foot can be a manifestation

19:17of this but or it can be a manifestation

19:20of any other syndrome. It is not the

19:22diagnosis by itself here. Arthroglyosis

19:26multiplex congenita is a condition where

19:28you see you know um problems only in the

19:32joints. You see joint contraures. So

19:35here it is not just joint problem. It is

19:39constriction rings typically the distal

19:41parts of the upper limbs and the lower

19:43limbs. Okay. So this is not B. Yes. In

19:48one hand index finger was gone. Exactly.

19:51images were of constriction rings. Yes,

19:53the answer is amniotic band syndrome.

19:56Let me ask someone if uh you have

19:59attended my class, can you tell me what

20:00is the other name for amniotic band

20:02syndrome? I have taught you. We also

20:05call it as streeters syndrome

20:09right syndrome. So amniotic band

20:12syndrome and streeters syndrome are

20:15same. Okay.

20:17Ch order of repair of episottomy.

20:23So it has to be first the mucosa. Sorry

20:26it has so not not C option. Okay. It has

20:29to be first the mucosa then it has to be

20:33the perennial muscles and then is it has

20:36to be the skin. Right? So mucosa muscle

20:40and skin. Epziottomy corresponds to a

20:44second degree perennial tar. And we have

20:47also taught you which muscles are cut.

20:50Okay. So I told you arthrogyosis is

20:54joint contraures. You don't see

20:57amputations there and you don't see

20:59constriction rings. Okay. Arthogriosis

21:03congenital multiplex is joint

21:05contraures. B. Okay. Multiple joints are

21:08involved there. Okay.

21:10Ch. This was the next question. Again

21:14exactly the case scenario like we do in

21:16class. Your patient is uh 5 cm dilated

21:21there is vertex and she develops a chord

21:24prolapse. Uh the question very clearly

21:27mentioned that there are chord

21:29pulsations are present. What is the

21:32management? So if you go to my class

21:35notes or if you go to my live rapid

21:37revision notes, you will see exactly the

21:40same order in which you see the things

21:43here. So what are you supposed to do?

21:45You are supposed to do a butck lift.

21:47Push the head up which means push the

21:50you supposed to put your hand inside and

21:52with your fingers you're supposed to

21:54push the presenting part upwards so that

21:57it does not compress the cord. This is

22:00the first and the most important thing

22:02to be done. Okay, you push up the

22:05presenting part and for the same reason

22:08you also do a retrograde filling of the

22:11bladder because once the bladder is full

22:14it is going to push the presenting part

22:17up and the cord will no longer be

22:20compressed. So exactly in the same order

22:22I also shared the images of the nodes

22:24itself directly. Right? So this is the

22:28answer. Butter lift push up the

22:31presenting part or push up the head and

22:34do a retrograde filling of the bladder.

22:37And at the same time while you're doing

22:38all this you have to shift her to OT for

22:41an emergency cesarian section. Okay

22:46let's look at the next. Again almost

22:49everything if you see has been covered

22:51in your revision resources. So whether

22:54it is DVT or live rapid revision it

22:57covered each and every MCQ of obsen gyne

23:01hydroone nephrosis is stage 3b right so

23:06specially I tell you that it reaches the

23:08ura I also told you that it can also

23:10reach the pelvic side walls. So if it

23:14reaches the pelvic side walls it is

23:16again considered as 3B and once there is

23:19involvement of urer eventually it can

23:22cause involvement of the kidneys as

23:24well. So you will see hydrononepherosis

23:27and uh another related MCQ is what is

23:30the most common cause of death in CA

23:32cervix. So most common cause of death in

23:35cancer cervix yes is uremia. The reason

23:39for uremia is renal failure because the

23:42back pressure changes continuously are

23:46affecting the kidneys and as a result

23:48the kidneys eventually fail. Okay. So

23:51this is going to be stage 3b. Okay. All

23:56right. Let's look at the next one. A 46

24:00year old woman with irregular bleeding.

24:03Right. And endometrial thickness is

24:06given as 16 mm. Right? What is the next

24:10step? Always I have taught in my class

24:13that if your patient is beyond 45 years

24:16of age and she has abnormal bleeding

24:20especially in the form of minor regia or

24:24irregular bleeding

24:27we must do a endomtrial biopsy. I have

24:31also told you that they will ask what

24:33devices you need. So any set is very f

24:36fond of asking what device will you use

24:39for this endometrial biopsy. So like you

24:42can use a pipelia

24:45we also use a carman scanula right

24:50exactly what we are doing is endometrial

24:52aspiration cytologology EAC but

24:55practically we call it as an endometrial

24:58biopsy. Papsmear can also should also be

25:01done. If she has not undergone any kind

25:03of screening so far, we will also do the

25:06papsmear. But papsmear right now is not

25:09the most relevant next step. The most

25:12relevant next step is endomtrial

25:15sampling. Right. Very good. Ch. About

25:20there was a question which you all have

25:23been fighting it out for. A 65year-old

25:26postmenopausal woman has come. Okay. Her

25:29BP is 170 by 100. But she has come to

25:32you with blood stain discharge and you

25:35all are telling me I should send her to

25:37a cardiologist.

25:40Why do you think I cannot give her a

25:42tablet for high blood pressure? So you

25:45know she's come to a doctor and you

25:47think that I will not take care of

25:49anything and just simply send her off to

25:52a cardiologist. Please remember 65 years

25:55of age post menopausal bleeding there is

25:58a very high risk of malignancy

26:01right so I will definitely definitely do

26:04a pelvic examination this was what was

26:07in your option we will definitely do a

26:10pelvic examination and send a papsmearia

26:14where say as age increases you are

26:17likely to have slightly blood pressure

26:19on the higher side right so if required.

26:23We will see what she needs an

26:25evaluation. But as of now, I'm not just

26:27going to not do anything about the

26:29vaginal bleeding and just send her off

26:32to a cardiologist. Okay? Uh no, that is

26:35not the most relevant next step for her.

26:38Okay? And especially only for high blood

26:41pressure, I really don't need to send

26:43her to a cardiologist. Okay? So please

26:47remember this. Okay?

26:49Hypertension I hope you know is

26:52hypertension, diabetes, obesity.

26:55Do you know this that uh these are risk

26:58factors for endometrial cancer? What do

27:00you call it? Corpus cancer syndrome. So

27:04not only will I do a pelvic exam and

27:07papsmear I will also try and do an

27:10ultrasound to look for endometrial

27:11thickness do an endometrial sampling as

27:14well. Okay. So please remember this.

27:17They are risk factors. Okay.

27:21Ch. Then there was a question where we

27:25have asked you sequence of maneuvers in

27:28shoulder dystocia. I don't think the

27:30options were difficult because there was

27:32only one option just shuru macroberts or

27:36end zava. Right? So please remember

27:39macroberts has to come first. Zava has

27:43to come last. Right? So they had jumbled

27:47up these four maneuvers. What were the

27:49four maneuvers? Macroberts, Gaskkin,

27:53Rubines and Zavanellies, right? So the

27:56key thing is Macroberts is the first

27:59maneuver. Zava Nelly's is the last

28:02maneuver right or Gaskin

28:07it doesn't really matter as far as this

28:09MCQ is concerned. Right? Again something

28:12that I have predicted even when we were

28:15doing the mock paper needp mock you

28:18remember I had given a question on

28:20shoulder dystocia and specially I asked

28:23you yes that's okay you can put rubine

28:26here and gaskin here it it's okay the

28:29answer will still remain the same

28:31because as I said there was only one one

28:34option where Mac Roberts was first and

28:37Zavanellis was last okay so Please

28:41remember this

28:45question.

28:47I confused you about the finer details.

28:51You remember this delivery of posterior

28:54arm or rub. Do you all remember that

28:57question? So that was from your last

29:00neat PG mock that we did. Right? So we I

29:04knew that they are going to give you

29:07these topics. They don't are not going

29:09to ask you something out of an

29:11encyclopedia.

29:12They will ask you basics but they will

29:14twist options. They will make the

29:17options very close. And that is why you

29:19have to have a very good content and

29:22application of your content. Right? So

29:25uh yes. So this was the answer for the

29:28shoulder dystocia question. Okay. Ch.

29:32Then there was history of prolapse and

29:35which ligament is damaged or which

29:38ligament is the best support was asked

29:42right. So the answer is macken rod which

29:45I hope you also know is called as

29:48transverse cervical ligament.

29:53It is also called as

29:57cardinal ligament. Right? So they are

30:00names of the same ligament and uh

30:03especially especially when I teach I

30:06tell you this that you know if they have

30:08to confuse you with this ligament they

30:10will ask you other names in the option.

30:13So you have to know that they are names

30:14of the same ligament. Round ligament is

30:18not a main support. It is a support but

30:21not a main support. Yes it is

30:23responsible for anti-version and anti-

30:25flexion. Broad ligament is not a support

30:29at all. It is a false name. It's not a

30:32ligament. Sacrospinus is not the

30:35ligament for uterine support. Okay.

30:38Sacross spinus importance pudendal nerve

30:42block. When you're giving a pudendal

30:43nerve block, you have to pierce the

30:46sacrospinus ligament. That's what they

30:48will ask you. They will ask you if

30:50you're giving a pudendal nerve block,

30:52which ligament will you pierce? Then the

30:55answer is sacrospinus.

30:57Okay. Chello. Then there was a clinical

31:01vignette. Again something that I have

31:03been putting in your CBTs and your mock

31:06test papers and always asking you to

31:08differentiate it from abruption. So the

31:11key words here were a patient of

31:13previous cesarian. She is in active

31:16labor. But the other keywords given to

31:20you were fetal bradic cardia and

31:24maternal tachicardia.

31:26So these are signs of impending rupture.

31:31Right? So these are signs of impending

31:34rupture. If you go to the topic of

31:36previous cesarian and back to basics,

31:39you know I have very clearly written

31:40what is the first sign or symptom of

31:44rupture uterus or impending rupture. It

31:46is nonreassuring

31:49fetal heart rate. It is also the most

31:53reliable sign. It is also the first

31:55sign. So because we are anticipating an

31:59impending rupture, what is the step? I

32:01have written there that the management

32:03is going to be an emergency cesarian

32:08at the time of cesarian you realize that

32:11it is already a scar dehissence but that

32:14is an intraoperative finding right so

32:17the answer here is going to be the

32:19management is emergency cesarian section

32:22okay let's look at the next one the next

32:25question is a woman who has a 28 day and

32:30a regular cycle on day 21 to 25 or day 1

32:36to 24 whatever they had given it doesn't

32:38matter 24 yeah 25 right what is the

32:42correct status of her hormones again go

32:46to your DBT go to your classes go to LRR

32:49do you remember a diagram that I have

32:51made you draw anybody remembers I and

32:55I've specially taught you that you have

32:57to see these diagrams and you have to

32:59know what is the interpretation of these

33:02diagrams, right? Do you remember this

33:05diagram? And if you have attended my

33:08class, you will know how I teach. Yes,

33:13tell me. So, I have taught you that

33:15there are two hormones which show you a

33:18peak. Okay. In the second half, what are

33:24the two hormones? There is estrogen and

33:27progesterone.

33:29Corpus lutium not only secretes

33:31progesterone, it also secretes estrogen.

33:34But the most important thing or class,

33:38what happens to LH and FSH levels? Yes.

33:43What happens to LH and FSH levels

33:48uh in the lutial phase? So you have to

33:51know that lutal phase may you see the

33:54lowest levels of LH and FSH. As far as

33:58the recall I have there was only one

34:00option with where both LH and FSH were

34:04low and that is the answer right so

34:07let's look at this so as I said LH and

34:10FSH have to be low low LH low FSH and

34:15progesterone has to be high you

34:18mandatory here for the hormonal profile

34:21in this second half right so there was

34:24only one option just

34:27LH FSH.

34:35You know you were wondering why ma'am is

34:37teaching us the graph because I knew

34:39they will ask you and they will confuse

34:42you in basics by making the options

34:45close. Right? So remember it is not

34:49about weird things. It is not about

34:51encyclopedias. It is about basics,

34:55concepts and application of concepts.

34:58That is what we all have to target.

35:00Whether it is FMG exam or needp or in

35:04set, they're all going on the same

35:06lines. Okay. So the answer here is B. As

35:09per the recall that I have got from

35:11these students, high estrogen and high

35:15progesterone whereas low LH and low FSH.

35:19Okay, is that clear to understand?

35:26So I think I've got exactly correct

35:28recall because I've asked a lot of

35:31students for the recall. Some of you you

35:33know you want to sometimes keep thinking

35:36about it and people will twist. Believe

35:39me if you see recalls from the YouTube a

35:43lot of times people are twisting options

35:46just to prove themsel right. Okay. So um

35:50uh please ensure that we have the

35:53correct recalls because

35:56but any which ways you know these

35:58recalls are more for students who are

36:00going to appear next year in the exams

36:02because they should know what is right.

36:04Okay

36:06estrogen

36:08I just told you corpus lutium is going

36:12to secrete estrogen as well. So the

36:14three most important things are number

36:17one there has to be high progesterone

36:21that is the important part in the second

36:23half low LH and low FSH in case there

36:27were two options with low LH and FSH you

36:30have to go with one with high

36:33progesterone okay very very important

36:37okay high progesterone and low LH and

36:40FSH

36:44You will have to go with one which has

36:46these findings. Okay.

36:49Next. A 20-year-old woman with irregular

36:53cycles conceived with IVF. She has 2

36:57months of aminoria

36:59and LMP is not known. What is the best

37:03parameter to know the gestational age?

37:07So the answer is going to be crown rump

37:10length. So again covered everywhere DVT

37:13LR and obviously your notes that CRL I'm

37:18use then I have written three things for

37:21you. I have written number one patient

37:23has irregular cycles. Number two LMP is

37:27not known. Number three patient has

37:30conceived on OCPS.

37:34In these three conditions, we cannot use

37:37LMP and therefore we will use crown rump

37:41length. Not just that, if you remember,

37:43I've taught you what is the ideal time

37:45to measure crown rump length? 7 to 9

37:49weeks, right? 7 to 9 weeks is the ideal

37:53time to measure crown rump length. Okay.

37:56Ch loading dose of magulf. Again people

38:01who are teaching superficially

38:04then you might have done this incorrect.

38:07Okay but please remember they have asked

38:10loading dose of magal as per the

38:12prchard's regime and the answer is not 4

38:16g it is not 10 g it is 14 g. You have to

38:22know this 4 g is given IV and along with

38:26this this 10 g is given IM. The total

38:30dose of magulf as per the prchard's

38:33regime is 14 g. Exactly same way we have

38:38written in dbt. Loading dose is 4 g iv

38:43plus 10 gim. So a total of 14 g. Okay,

38:49that is the answer. So it's not four and

38:51it is not 10. Okay, so this is as per

38:55the prchard's regime. Okay. Then there

39:00was a question on ovarian tumor. Again

39:03directly we have done this when we have

39:06done this in your marathon as well. So

39:09if you remember in the neatp marathon I

39:11just did images for you and out of I

39:15think five or six images except for the

39:17MRI one all the images are from the

39:20marathon session. Right? So this is a

39:23ovarian tumor. What were the hints? If

39:26you go to the marathon you will see that

39:27I had written the hints on the basis of

39:29which you will mark the answer. The

39:31hints were raised CA 125 asitis and

39:37papillary excrete senses. Right? So when

39:40you have the papillary excretences you

39:44have raised CA125

39:46and the cancer has already spread

39:48causing aitis. This is a typical cirrus

39:52cyst adenoc carcinoma right? Yes, it can

39:56be multiloculated. It is a complex mass.

40:00Okay, because it is a malignancy. It's a

40:02complex mass. There will be solid areas.

40:05There may be cystic areas. Okay, so

40:08please remember the answer is cirrus

40:11cyst adenoc carcinoma. Yes, it is not an

40:14endodermal sinus tumor. Endodermal sinus

40:17tumor is same as yolk sack tumor and yes

40:21tumor marker alpha protein. Okay. In

40:25every CBT and the mock test, right, we

40:29gave this as a MCQ

40:33may we gave you the tumor markers. We

40:36gave you these key words tumor cona

40:39keyword used right that brings us to the

40:43last question again directly from DVT

40:47verbaten there is a line there. So what

40:50is the reason for aminora? Because of

40:53high prolactin very similar to why we

40:57see lactational aminora.

41:00So the reason for aminora is negative

41:04feedback of prolactin on gnr.

41:08So it inhibits g&rh. As a result there

41:11will be low pulses of LH and FSH. So no

41:16the reason is not increased A2. In fact,

41:19it will be decreased. Okay. Pulsatile

41:23release of FSH or LH come. And as I

41:26said, LH FSH levels are going to be low

41:29because there is a negative feedback on

41:32G NR. So that is the answer for these 25

41:36questions. I hope I haven't missed any

41:39MCQ. Right? So do let me know how you

41:42have performed. I hope OBGY was a

41:45scoring subject for you. We've tried our

41:48best to give you u whatever best we can

41:52whether it is in the form of revision

41:54courses or it is your back to basic

41:57videos or it is your CBTs and mock test

42:00papers. So I wish each one of you all

42:03the best. May you come out with flying

42:05colors and you do well and most

42:08importantly you get the branch of your

42:10choice. So take care everyone. All the

42:13best to each and every student for your

42:15results. Whether it is our FMG students

42:19or whether it is our NETPG students,

42:23both of you are waiting for results. So,

42:26God bless you and I will pray that you

42:28are blessed with success and the branch

42:31of your choice. Okay. So, take care

42:33everyone. All the best. Keep keep doing

42:35great work.

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